Clinical experience with the AKT1 inhibitor miransertib in two children with PIK3CA-related overgrowth syndrome.

BACKGROUND: PIK3CA-related overgrowth spectrum (PROS) refers to a group of rare disorders, caused by somatic activating mutations in PIK3CA, resulting in abnormal PI3K-AKT-mTOR pathway signalling. Significant associated morbidity is frequently observed, and approved treatments are lacking. Miransertib (ARQ 092) is a novel, orally available, selective pan-AKT inhibitor with proven in vitro efficacy. Following recent results of the use of AKT inhibitors in Proteus syndrome (PS) and AKT-mutant cancers, we investigated its therapeutic use in two patients with severe PROS who had exhausted conventional treatment methods. RESULTS: Two patients, one with CLOVES variant (P1) and one with facial infiltrating lipomatosis and hemimegalencephaly (P2), were commenced on miransertib treatment on a compassionate use basis. In patient one, intra-abdominal and paraspinal overgrowth had resulted in respiratory compromise, obstructive uropathy, dysfunctional seating and lying postures, and chronic pain. In patient two, hemifacial overgrowth and hemimegalencephaly had caused difficulties with articulation and oral function, and refractory epilepsy. Miransertib treatment was continued for a median duration of 22 months (range 22-28). In patient one, alleviation of respiratory compromise was observed and functionally, seating and lying postures improved. Serial volumetric MRI analysis revealed 15% reduction in calculated volumes of fatty overgrowth between treatment commencement and end. In patient two, reduction in seizure burden and improved parent-reported quality of life measures were reported. Treatment was discontinued in both patients due to lack of sustained response, and poor compliance in year two of treatment (P2). No significant toxicities were reported. CONCLUSION: We report the first paediatric case series of the use of miransertib in two children with PROS. Objective clinical response was observed in patient one, and improvement in key qualitative outcomes was reported in patient two. Treatment was well tolerated with no significant toxicities reported. This case series highlights the potential therapeutic utility of miransertib in selected paediatric patients with severe PROS, and further demonstrates the potential for re-purposing targeted therapies for the treatment of rare diseases. An open label, Phase 1/2 study of miransertib in children with PROS and PS is underway to more accurately assess the efficacy of miransertib in the treatment of PROS disorder (NCT03094832)

Rasgrp1 mutation increases naïve T-cell CD44 expression and drives mTOR-dependent accumulation of Helios+ T cells and autoantibodies

Missense variants are a major source of human genetic variation. Here we analyze a new mouse missense variant, Rasgrp1Anaef, with an ENU-mutated EF hand in the Rasgrp1 Ras guanine nucleotide exchange factor. Rasgrp1Anaef mice exhibit anti-nuclear autoantibodies and gradually accumulate a CD44hi Helios+ PD-1+ CD4+ T cell population that is dependent on B cells. Despite reduced Rasgrp1-Ras-ERK activation in vitro, thymocyte selection in Rasgrp1Anaef is mostly normal in vivo, although CD44 is overexpressed on naïve thymocytes and T cells in a T-cell-autonomous manner. We identify CD44 expression as a sensitive reporter of tonic mTOR-S6 kinase signaling through a novel mouse strain, chino, with a reduction-of-function mutation in Mtor. Elevated tonic mTOR-S6 signaling occurs in Rasgrp1Anaef naïve CD4+ T cells. CD44 expression, CD4+ T cell subset ratios and serum autoantibodies all returned to normal in Rasgrp1AnaefMtorchino double-mutant mice, demonstrating that increased mTOR activity is essential for the Rasgrp1Anaef T cell dysregulation

Rasgrp1 mutation increases naïve T-cell CD44 expression and drives mTOR-dependent accumulation of Helios⁺ T cells and autoantibodies

Missense variants are a major source of human genetic variation. Here we analyze a new mouse missense variant, Rasgrp1ᴬⁿᵃᵉᶠ, with an ENU-mutated EF hand in the Rasgrp1 Ras guanine nucleotide exchange factor. Rasgrp1ᴬⁿᵃᵉᶠ mice exhibit anti-nuclear autoantibodies and gradually accumulate a CD44hi Helios⁺ PD-1⁺ CD4⁺ T cell population that is dependent on B cells. Despite reduced Rasgrp1-Ras-ERK activation in vitro, thymocyte selection in Rasgrp1ᴬⁿᵃᵉᶠ is mostly normal in vivo, although CD44 is overexpressed on naïve thymocytes and T cells in a T-cell-autonomous manner. We identify CD44 expression as a sensitive reporter of tonic mTOR-S6 kinase signaling through a novel mouse strain, chino, with a reduction-of-function mutation in Mtor. Elevated tonic mTOR-S6 signaling occurs in Rasgrp1ᴬⁿᵃᵉᶠ naïve CD4⁺ T cells. CD44 expression, CD4⁺ T cell subset ratios and serum autoantibodies all returned to normal in Rasgrp1ᴬⁿᵃᵉᶠMtorᶜʰⁱⁿᵒ double-mutant mice, demonstrating that increased mTOR activity is essential for the Rasgrp1ᴬⁿᵃᵉᶠ T cell dysregulation

Clinical and Molecular Features of Renal and Pheochromocytoma/Paraganglioma Tumor Association Syndrome (RAPTAS): Case Series and Literature Review.

CONTEXT: The co-occurrence of pheochromocytoma (PC) and renal tumors was linked to the inherited familial cancer syndrome von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) disease more than six decades ago. Subsequently, other shared genetic causes of predisposition to renal tumors and to PC, paraganglioma (PGL), or head and neck paraganglioma (HNPGL) have been described, but case series of non-VHL-related cases of renal tumor and pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma tumor association syndrome (RAPTAS) are rare. OBJECTIVE: To determine the clinical and molecular features of non-VHL RAPTAS by literature review and characterization of a case series. DESIGN: A review of the literature was performed and a retrospective study of referrals for investigation of genetic causes of RAPTAS. RESULTS: Literature review revealed evidence of an association, in addition to VHL disease, between germline mutations in SDHB, SDHC, SDHD, TMEM127, and MAX genes and RAPTAS [defined here as the co-occurrence of tumors from both classes (PC/PGL/HNPGL and renal tumors) in the same individual or in first-degree relatives]. In both the literature review and our case series of 22 probands with non-VHL RAPTAS, SDHB mutations were the most frequent cause of non-VHL RAPTAS. A genetic cause was identified in 36.3% (8/22) of kindreds. CONCLUSION: Renal tumors and PC/PGL/HNPGL tumors share common molecular features and their co-occurrence in an individual or family should prompt genetic investigations. We report a case of MAX-associated renal cell carcinoma and confirm the role of TMEM127 mutations with renal cell carcinoma predisposition

Bayesian approach to determining penetrance of pathogenic SDH variants.

BACKGROUND: Until recently, determining penetrance required large observational cohort studies. Data from the Exome Aggregate Consortium (ExAC) allows a Bayesian approach to calculate penetrance, in that population frequencies of pathogenic germline variants should be inversely proportional to their penetrance for disease. We tested this hypothesis using data from two cohorts for succinate dehydrogenase subunits A, B and C (SDHA-C) genetic variants associated with hereditary pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma (PC/PGL). METHODS: Two cohorts were 575 unrelated Australian subjects and 1240 unrelated UK subjects, respectively, with PC/PGL in whom genetic testing had been performed. Penetrance of pathogenic SDHA-C variants was calculated by comparing allelic frequencies in cases versus controls from ExAC (removing those variants contributed by The Cancer Genome Atlas). RESULTS: Pathogenic SDHA-C variants were identified in 106 subjects (18.4%) in cohort 1 and 317 subjects (25.6%) in cohort 2. Of 94 different pathogenic variants from both cohorts (seven in SDHA, 75 in SDHB and 12 in SDHC), 13 are reported in ExAC (two in SDHA, nine in SDHB and two in SDHC) accounting for 21% of subjects with SDHA-C variants. Combining data from both cohorts, estimated lifetime disease penetrance was 22.0% (95% CI 15.2% to 30.9%) for SDHB variants, 8.3% (95% CI 3.5% to 18.5%) for SDHC variants and 1.7% (95% CI 0.8% to 3.8%) for SDHA variants. CONCLUSION: Pathogenic variants in SDHB are more penetrant than those in SDHC and SDHA. Our findings have important implications for counselling and surveillance of subjects carrying these pathogenic variants

Tumour risks and genotype-phenotype correlations associated with germline variants in succinate dehydrogenase subunit genes SDHB, SDHC and SDHD.

BACKGROUND: Germline pathogenic variants in SDHB/SDHC/SDHD are the most frequent causes of inherited phaeochromocytomas/paragangliomas. Insufficient information regarding penetrance and phenotypic variability hinders optimum management of mutation carriers. We estimate penetrance for symptomatic tumours and elucidate genotype-phenotype correlations in a large cohort of SDHB/SDHC/SDHD mutation carriers. METHODS: A retrospective survey of 1832 individuals referred for genetic testing due to a personal or family history of phaeochromocytoma/paraganglioma. 876 patients (401 previously reported) had a germline mutation in SDHB/SDHC/SDHD (n=673/43/160). Tumour risks were correlated with in silico structural prediction analyses. RESULTS: Tumour risks analysis provided novel penetrance estimates and genotype-phenotype correlations. In addition to tumour type susceptibility differences for individual genes, we confirmed that the SDHD:p.Pro81Leu mutation has a distinct phenotype and identified increased age-related tumour risks with highly destabilising SDHB missense mutations. By Kaplan-Meier analysis, the penetrance (cumulative risk of clinically apparent tumours) in SDHB and (paternally inherited) SDHD mutation-positive non-probands (n=371/67 with detailed clinical information) by age 60 years was 21.8% (95% CI 15.2% to 27.9%) and 43.2% (95% CI 25.4% to 56.7%), respectively. Risk of malignant disease at age 60 years in non-proband SDHB mutation carriers was 4.2%(95% CI 1.1% to 7.2%). With retrospective cohort analysis to adjust for ascertainment, cumulative tumour risks for SDHB mutation carriers at ages 60 years and 80 years were 23.9% (95% CI 20.9% to 27.4%) and 30.6% (95% CI 26.8% to 34.7%). CONCLUSIONS: Overall risks of clinically apparent tumours for SDHB mutation carriers are substantially lower than initially estimated and will improve counselling of affected families. Specific genotype-tumour risk associations provides a basis for novel investigative strategies into succinate dehydrogenase-related mechanisms of tumourigenesis and the development of personalised management for SDHB/SDHC/SDHD mutation carriers

Safety, immunogenicity, and reactogenicity of BNT162b2 and mRNA-1273 COVID-19 vaccines given as fourth-dose boosters following two doses of ChAdOx1 nCoV-19 or BNT162b2 and a third dose of BNT162b2 (COV-BOOST): a multicentre, blinded, phase 2, randomised trial

BACKGROUND: Some high-income countries have deployed fourth doses of COVID-19 vaccines, but the clinical need, effectiveness, timing, and dose of a fourth dose remain uncertain. We aimed to investigate the safety, reactogenicity, and immunogenicity of fourth-dose boosters against COVID-19. METHODS: The COV-BOOST trial is a multicentre, blinded, phase 2, randomised controlled trial of seven COVID-19 vaccines given as third-dose boosters at 18 sites in the UK. This sub-study enrolled participants who had received BNT162b2 (Pfizer-BioNTech) as their third dose in COV-BOOST and randomly assigned them (1:1) to receive a fourth dose of either BNT162b2 (30 μg in 0·30 mL; full dose) or mRNA-1273 (Moderna; 50 μg in 0·25 mL; half dose) via intramuscular injection into the upper arm. The computer-generated randomisation list was created by the study statisticians with random block sizes of two or four. Participants and all study staff not delivering the vaccines were masked to treatment allocation. The coprimary outcomes were safety and reactogenicity, and immunogenicity (anti-spike protein IgG titres by ELISA and cellular immune response by ELISpot). We compared immunogenicity at 28 days after the third dose versus 14 days after the fourth dose and at day 0 versus day 14 relative to the fourth dose. Safety and reactogenicity were assessed in the per-protocol population, which comprised all participants who received a fourth-dose booster regardless of their SARS-CoV-2 serostatus. Immunogenicity was primarily analysed in a modified intention-to-treat population comprising seronegative participants who had received a fourth-dose booster and had available endpoint data. This trial is registered with ISRCTN, 73765130, and is ongoing. FINDINGS: Between Jan 11 and Jan 25, 2022, 166 participants were screened, randomly assigned, and received either full-dose BNT162b2 (n=83) or half-dose mRNA-1273 (n=83) as a fourth dose. The median age of these participants was 70·1 years (IQR 51·6-77·5) and 86 (52%) of 166 participants were female and 80 (48%) were male. The median interval between the third and fourth doses was 208·5 days (IQR 203·3-214·8). Pain was the most common local solicited adverse event and fatigue was the most common systemic solicited adverse event after BNT162b2 or mRNA-1273 booster doses. None of three serious adverse events reported after a fourth dose with BNT162b2 were related to the study vaccine. In the BNT162b2 group, geometric mean anti-spike protein IgG concentration at day 28 after the third dose was 23 325 ELISA laboratory units (ELU)/mL (95% CI 20 030-27 162), which increased to 37 460 ELU/mL (31 996-43 857) at day 14 after the fourth dose, representing a significant fold change (geometric mean 1·59, 95% CI 1·41-1·78). There was a significant increase in geometric mean anti-spike protein IgG concentration from 28 days after the third dose (25 317 ELU/mL, 95% CI 20 996-30 528) to 14 days after a fourth dose of mRNA-1273 (54 936 ELU/mL, 46 826-64 452), with a geometric mean fold change of 2·19 (1·90-2·52). The fold changes in anti-spike protein IgG titres from before (day 0) to after (day 14) the fourth dose were 12·19 (95% CI 10·37-14·32) and 15·90 (12·92-19·58) in the BNT162b2 and mRNA-1273 groups, respectively. T-cell responses were also boosted after the fourth dose (eg, the fold changes for the wild-type variant from before to after the fourth dose were 7·32 [95% CI 3·24-16·54] in the BNT162b2 group and 6·22 [3·90-9·92] in the mRNA-1273 group). INTERPRETATION: Fourth-dose COVID-19 mRNA booster vaccines are well tolerated and boost cellular and humoral immunity. Peak responses after the fourth dose were similar to, and possibly better than, peak responses after the third dose. FUNDING: UK Vaccine Task Force and National Institute for Health Research

Persistence of immunogenicity after seven COVID-19 vaccines given as third dose boosters following two doses of ChAdOx1 nCov-19 or BNT162b2 in the UK: three month analyses of the COV-BOOST trial

OBJECTIVES: To evaluate the persistence of immunogenicity three months after third dose boosters. METHODS: COV-BOOST is a multicentre, randomised, controlled, phase 2 trial of seven COVID-19 vaccines used as a third booster dose. The analysis was conducted using all randomised participants who were SARS-CoV-2 naïve during the study. RESULTS: Among the 2883 participants randomised, there were 2422 SARS-CoV-2 naïve participants until D84 visit included in the analysis with median age of 70 (IQR: 30-94) years. In the participants who had two initial doses of ChAd, schedules using mRNA vaccines as third dose have the highest anti-spike IgG at D84 (e.g. geometric mean concentration of 8674 ELU/ml (95% CI: 7461-10085) following ChAd/ChAd/BNT). However, in people who had two initial doses of BNT there was no significant difference at D84 in people given ChAd versus BNT (geometric mean ratio (GMR) of 0.95 (95%CI: 0.78, 1.15). Also, people given Ad26.COV2.S (Janssen; hereafter referred to as Ad26) as a third dose had significantly higher anti-spike IgG at D84 than BNT (GMR of 1.20, 95%CI: 1.01,1.43). Responses at D84 between people who received BNT (15 μg) or BNT (30 μg) after ChAd/ChAd or BNT/BNT were similar, with anti-spike IgG GMRs of half-BNT (15 μg) versus BNT (30 μg) ranging between 0.74-0.86. The decay rate of cellular responses were similar between all the vaccine schedules and doses. CONCLUSIONS: 84 days after a third dose of COVID-19 vaccine the decay rates of humoral response were different between vaccines. Adenoviral vector vaccine anti-spike IgG concentration at D84 following BNT/BNT initial doses were higher than for a three dose (BNT/BNT/BNT) schedule. Half dose BNT immune responses were similar to full dose responses. While high antibody tires are desirable in situations of high transmission of new variants of concern, the maintenance of immune responses that confer long-lasting protection against severe disease or death is also of critical importance. Policymakers may also consider adenoviral vector, fractional dose of mRNA, or other non-mRNA vaccines as third doses